Groundwork of the Metaphysics of Morals

Throughout Groundwork, Kant argues that empirical philosophy should not influence the groundwork of a potential metaphysics of morals. Do you agree? Why or why not?

The Cambridge University Press publication of Groundwork of the Metaphysics of Morals includes an introduction from Harvard Professor Christine M. Korsgaard, who writes that Kant’s philosophical works are centered around the question, “what contribution does pure reason make to our knowledge of the world and to the government of our action?” (x). Do you think Groundwork plays a part in answering this question? Why or why not?

Groundwork of the Metaphysics of Morals was written during the Enlightenment Era, a time defined by increased secularization. However, in the Second Section, Kant uses God to prove that morality exists a priori. How do you reconcile this? Does this support or disprove Enlightenment ideals?

Do you think a kingdom of ends is possible? Why or why not? What are the conditions required for this to be realized?

Though Kant was not specifically working in the realm of politics, many political philosophers have used Kant’s theories to understand parts of political life. For example, some political philosophers argue the kingdom of ends is describing a form of democracy. Are there any parts of Kant’s theories in Groundwork that you feel help explain politics? Where do they fall short?

Kant argues that freedom and morality are connected to each other through reason. Do you agree? Why or why not?

Can happiness have a place in the kingdom of ends? Why or why not?

What is the connection between reason and instinct?